🦷 100-ITEM INBDE PRACTICE SET (Answers at the End)
Organized by Domain Weighting (Component A ≈ 80 Q / Component B ≈ 20 Q)
NO ANSWERS appear in the questions — answers are in a complete key at the end.
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COMPONENT A — CRITICAL THINKING & PRACTICE OF DENTISTRY
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A1 – Diagnosis & Treatment Planning (35 Questions)
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1. A 14-year-old presents with deep caries on #19. Cold test produces lingering pain. What is the diagnosis?
A. Reversible pulpitis
B. Symptomatic irreversible pulpitis
C. Normal pulp
D. Necrotic pulp
2. A radiolucency around the crown of an unerupted tooth with a well-defined border most likely represents:
A. Dentigerous cyst
B. Ameloblastoma
C. OKC
D. Periapical granuloma
3. A 67-year-old diabetic patient presents with 7–8 mm periodontal pockets. What is the FIRST step in treatment?
A. Perio surgery
B. Scaling and root planing
C. Local antibiotics
D. Extraction
4. Ulcerated, punched-out papillae with gray pseudomembrane suggest:
A. NUG
B. Chronic periodontitis
C. Pericoronitis
D. ANUG
5. A red, velvety patch on the floor of the mouth is most concerning for:
A. Erythroplakia
B. Candidiasis
C. Lichen planus
D. Pemphigus
6. A multilocular “soap-bubble” radiolucency in the mandible suggests:
A. Ameloblastoma
B. CGCG
C. OKC
D. Odontoma
7. A 6-year-old with a displaced primary tooth after trauma likely has:
A. Concussion
B. Subluxation
C. Extrusive luxation
D. Intrusion
8. A radiopaque area near the apex of a vital tooth is most likely:
A. Periapical cemental dysplasia
B. Condensing osteitis
C. Cementoblastoma
D. Odontoma
9. Ground-glass appearance in the maxilla suggests:
A. Fibrous dysplasia
B. Hyperparathyroidism
C. Paget disease
D. FCOD
10. A tooth that does not respond to cold and hurts to bite is diagnosed as:
A. IRP
B. SRP
C. SAP
D. Normal pulp
11. Root caries in an elderly patient is most commonly caused by:
A. Abrasion
B. Erosion
C. Gingival recession
D. Developmental defects
12. A draining sinus tract on a primary molar indicates the need for:
A. Pulpotomy
B. Pulpectomy
C. Extraction
D. IPC
13. “Cotton-wool” radiopacities in the skull suggest:
A. Paget disease
B. Fibrous dysplasia
C. Osteopetrosis
D. Osteosarcoma
14. A radiolucency that scallops between roots most likely represents:
A. Traumatic bone cyst
B. OKC
C. Lateral periodontal cyst
D. Residual cyst
15. A white lesion that wipes off is:
A. Candidiasis
B. Leukoplakia
C. Lichen planus
D. Leukoedema
16. The best diagnostic test for cracked tooth syndrome is:
A. Percussion
B. Bite stick
C. Cold test
D. Pulp vitality test
17. A radiopaque lesion resembling tooth structures is:
A. Odontoma
B. Osteoma
C. Cementoblastoma
D. Ossifying fibroma
18. A 12-year-old with anterior crossbite of #8 and #9 should receive:
A. Extraction
B. Early orthodontic correction
C. Monitoring
D. Interproximal reduction
19. Bilateral lingual swellings near mandibular canines are likely:
A. Tori
B. Ranula
C. Sialoliths
D. Lymphoid hyperplasia
20. Bilateral parotid swelling without pain in an elderly patient indicates:
A. Sialadenosis
B. Parotitis
C. Mumps
D. Pleomorphic adenoma
21. A radiopaque line under amalgam most likely represents:
A. Recurrent caries
B. Base material
C. Hypermineralized dentin
D. Pulp stone
22. The best intervention to arrest early enamel caries is:
A. Sealant
B. Fluoride
C. Extraction
D. Composite
23. Most common site for initiation of caries:
A. Pit and fissure
B. Smooth surface
C. Root surfaces
D. Interproximal smooth surfaces
24. Widened PDL without radiolucency suggests:
A. Early SAP
B. Normal
C. Sclerosing osteitis
D. Hypercementosis
25. Management of an impacted canine typically involves:
A. Extraction
B. Surgical exposure + orthodontic traction
C. Monitoring
D. Crown lengthening
26. A tooth with irreversible pulpitis but normal periapex requires:
A. Pulpectomy
B. Extraction
C. DPC
D. IPC
27. Generalized widening of PDL spaces in all teeth suggests:
A. Scleroderma
B. Hyperparathyroidism
C. Osteopetrosis
D. Osteoporosis
28. Furcation class II involvement on #19 best managed with:
A. SRP
B. Flap surgery
C. Gingivectomy
D. Extraction
29. Best space maintainer for premature loss of a primary molar:
A. Band and loop
B. Distal shoe
C. Nance
D. Lingual arch
30. Most common malignant salivary gland tumor:
A. Mucoepidermoid carcinoma
B. Adenoid cystic carcinoma
C. SCC
D. Pleomorphic adenoma
31. Pain on release when biting suggests:
A. Cracked tooth
B. Abscess
C. Reversible pulpitis
D. Necrotic pulp
32. Most radiosensitive tissue:
A. Thyroid
B. Bone marrow
C. Salivary glands
D. Oral mucosa
33. First treatment for periodontal abscess is:
A. Drainage + debridement
B. Antibiotics only
C. Extraction
D. Surgery
34. Fluoride varnish for high-caries risk should be applied every:
A. 3 months
B. 6 months
C. 9 months
D. Yearly
35. A radiolucency in the incisive canal region is most likely:
A. Nasopalatine duct cyst
B. Lateral periodontal cyst
C. Periapical cyst
D. Dentigerous cyst
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A2 – Oral Health Management (35 Questions)
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36. Best anesthetic for long procedures:
A. Lidocaine
B. Mepivacaine
C. Bupivacaine
D. Procaine
37. Max safe dose of lidocaine with epinephrine:
A. 3 mg/kg
B. 4 mg/kg
C. 5 mg/kg
D. 7 mg/kg
38. NSAIDs should be avoided in patients with:
A. Controlled hypertension
B. Ulcers
C. Mild asthma
D. Diabetes
39. Best antibiotic combination for aggressive periodontitis:
A. Amoxicillin
B. Metro + amoxicillin
C. Clindamycin
D. Azithromycin
40. Bisphosphonate therapy contraindicates which procedure?
A. Extraction
B. RCT
C. Fluoride
D. Prophy
41. Highest risk medication for C. difficile:
A. Clindamycin
B. Penicillin
C. Azithro
D. Doxycycline
42. Asthmatic children should avoid:
A. Ibuprofen
B. Acetaminophen
C. Epinephrine
D. Fluoride
43. Drug that causes gingival hyperplasia:
A. Phenytoin
B. Ibuprofen
C. Lisinopril
D. Insulin
44. Elective treatment should be avoided within 6 months of:
A. MI
B. Stroke
C. Asthma attack
D. Hip replacement
45. Safest analgesic for pregnant patient:
A. Ibuprofen
B. Naproxen
C. Acetaminophen
D. Aspirin
46. Most cariogenic carbohydrate:
A. Glucose
B. Sucrose
C. Lactose
D. Maltose
47. Best restoration for high-risk primary molars:
A. Composite
B. Amalgam
C. Stainless steel crown
D. GI
48. Chlorhexidine is recommended for:
A. Chronic perio
B. Caries
C. Ulcers
D. Ortho patients
49. Best material for cervical lesions in elderly with recession:
A. Composite
B. GI
C. RMGI
D. Amalgam
50. Best material for deep posterior Class II in high-load areas:
A. Composite
B. Amalgam
C. GI
D. Sealant
51. Swelling + fever + trismus 3 days post-extraction suggests:
A. Alveolar osteitis
B. Infection
C. TMJ disorder
D. Normal healing
52. Most critical factor for implant success:
A. Brand of system
B. Bone quality
C. Gingival biotype
D. Prosthetic planning
53. Antibiotic prophylaxis is indicated in which patient?
A. Healthy patient with good immune system
B. Patient with prosthetic heart valve
C. Patient with controlled diabetes
D. Patient with knee replacement
54. Best emergency tx for anaphylaxis:
A. Benadryl
B. Epinephrine IM
C. Oxygen
D. Corticosteroid
55. Main cause of dry socket:
A. Infection
B. Dislodged clot
C. Antibiotics
D. Suturing technique
56. A patient on warfarin needs extraction. Best step:
A. Stop warfarin immediately
B. Check INR
C. Send for clearance
D. Avoid extraction
57. First step in treating avulsed permanent tooth:
A. Rinse and reimplant
B. Scrub root
C. Store dry
D. Delay for radiographs
58. Most appropriate fluoride for high-risk adults:
A. 1.1% NaF toothpaste
B. Fluoride tablets
C. Fluoride rinse only
D. None
59. Treatment for reversible pulpitis:
A. Extraction
B. DPC
C. Remove caries + restore
D. Pulpectomy
60. Best local anesthetic for hypertensive patient:
A. Lido 1:100k
B. Mepi plain
C. Articaine
D. Bupivacaine
61. Patient has dry mouth due to medications. Best management:
A. Chlorhexidine
B. Saliva substitutes
C. Antibiotics
D. NSAIDs
62. Patient presents with facial swelling + fever + airway deviation. Best action:
A. Start antibiotics
B. Incision and drainage
C. Refer for emergency hospital care
D. RCT
63. Best cement for zirconia crown:
A. Zinc phosphate
B. RMGI
C. Resin cement
D. GI
64. Most radiopaque restorative material:
A. GI
B. Composite
C. Amalgam
D. RMGI
65. Positive Nikolsky sign indicates:
A. Pemphigus vulgaris
B. Lichen planus
C. Leukoplakia
D. Apthous ulcer
66. Antibiotic for odontogenic infection in penicillin-allergic patient:
A. Amoxicillin
B. Clindamycin
C. Metro
D. Cephalexin
67. Recommended tx for pericoronitis:
A. Extraction immediately
B. Irrigation + debridement
C. RCT
D. Crown lengthening
68. Tooth with necrotic pulp + acute swelling is treated first with:
A. Antibiotics
B. Incision and drainage
C. RCT
D. Extraction
69. Radiographic caries detection is best for:
A. Occlusal caries
B. Interproximal caries
C. Smooth surface caries
D. Root caries
70. Patient with HbA1c of 12% is best classified as:
A. Controlled
B. Moderately controlled
C. Poorly controlled
D. Normal
71. A fractured cusp on #30 needing cuspal coverage requires:
A. Amalgam
B. Crown
C. GI
D. Onlay only
72. Best approach for periodontal maintenance interval:
A. 12 months
B. 6 months
C. 3 months
D. 1 month
73. Primary tooth intruded without damage to permanent successor:
A. Extract
B. Reposition
C. Allow to reerupt
D. Pulpectomy
74. Most common cause of implant failure early:
A. Occlusion
B. Surgical overheating
C. Poor oral hygiene
D. Crown design
75. Most common cause of implant failure late:
A. Peri-implantitis
B. Poor surgery
C. Smoking
D. Metal sensitivity
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A3 – Data Interpretation & Clinical Integration (10 Questions)
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76. A CBCT shows a thickened Schneiderian membrane near #3. This suggests:
A. Sinusitis
B. MRONJ
C. Osteosarcoma
D. Normal variant
77. Patient has BP 188/118 before extraction. Best response:
A. Proceed
B. Delay + refer for urgent evaluation
C. Use anesthetic without epi
D. Give nitrous oxide
78. A patient’s medication list includes lisinopril, metoprolol, aspirin 81 mg. What is the biggest dental concern?
A. Bleeding
B. Vasoconstrictor interaction
C. BP instability
D. None
79. Positive radiographic signs of early external resorption appear as:
A. Uniform radiolucency
B. Irregular root outline
C. Well-circumscribed lesion
D. Radiopaque halo
80. High CRP + uncontrolled diabetes increases risk for:
A. Caries
B. Perio progression
C. Endodontic failure
D. Orthodontic root resorption
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COMPONENT B — PROFESSIONAL RESPONSIBILITY
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B1 – Ethics & Professionalism (15 Questions)
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81. Parent refuses fluoride varnish due to misconceptions. Best response?
A. Refuse care
B. Educate + respect decision
C. Apply anyway
D. Dismiss patient
82. A patient demands extraction of a restorable tooth. You should:
A. Extract immediately
B. Decline and explain risks
C. Ignore request
D. Refer
83. A patient discloses domestic abuse. Legally required action?
A. Ignore
B. Document only
C. Report to authorities
D. Tell family
84. Altering a chart after an incident is:
A. Ethical
B. Legal but unethical
C. Illegal and unethical
D. Acceptable if corrected
85. If you make a clinical error, the correct action is to:
A. Hide it
B. Disclose to patient
C. Change the chart
D. Do nothing
86. For informed consent, you must include:
A. Dentist’s opinion only
B. Risks, benefits, alternatives
C. Only the risks
D. Only the benefits
87. When treating minors, consent must come from:
A. Child
B. Dentist
C. Parent/legal guardian
D. School
88. A patient requests opioids despite low pain symptoms. Best action:
A. Prescribe
B. Decline + offer alternatives
C. Give refills
D. Ignore request
89. A patient is HIV-positive. How should you proceed?
A. Treat normally
B. Refer away
C. Charge extra
D. Decline care
90. Failing to maintain confidentiality violates:
A. Autonomy
B. Justice
C. Veracity
D. HIPAA
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B2 – Legal & Public Health Responsibilities (10 Questions)
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91. When must child abuse be reported?
A. Only if confirmed
B. When suspected
C. Only with photos
D. Only if parent admits
92. Sterilization monitoring requires:
A. Weekly spore testing
B. Monthly chemical tests
C. Annual checks
D. Only visual inspection
93. Post-exposure procedure for needlestick:
A. Wash + report + medical evaluation
B. Ignore
C. Wait 24 hours
D. Cover with bandage
94. Dentist reviewing another dentist’s work should:
A. Criticize
B. Only state findings objectively
C. Make assumptions
D. Encourage litigation
95. Failure to diagnose caries is:
A. Abandonment
B. Malpractice
C. Battery
D. Negligence
96. Best method to reduce radiation exposure:
A. Increase kVp
B. Use rectangular collimation
C. Repeat films if unsure
D. Stand 1 foot away
97. A patient requests records. Dentist must provide them:
A. Immediately
B. Within required timeframe
C. Only to physicians
D. Never
98. Who owns the dental record?
A. Patient
B. Dentist (content belongs to provider, info to patient)
C. Insurance
D. State
99. If a patient refuses radiographs needed for diagnosis:
A. Treat anyway
B. Dismiss after explaining necessity
C. Force radiographs
D. Ignore
100. Consent must be renewed when:
A. Treatment plan changes
B. Dentist changes
C. Patient moves
D. Every 6 months
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✅ COMPLETE ANSWER KEY (1–100)
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1-B
2-A
3-B
4-A
5-A
6-A
7-C
8-B
9-A
10-C
11-C
12-C
13-A
14-A
15-A
16-B
17-A
18-B
19-A
20-A
21-C
22-B
23-A
24-A
25-B
26-A
27-A
28-B
29-A
30-A
31-A
32-B
33-A
34-A
35-A
36-C
37-D
38-B
39-B
40-A
41-A
42-A
43-A
44-A
45-C
46-B
47-C
48-A
49-C
50-B
51-B
52-B
53-B
54-B
55-B
56-B
57-A
58-A
59-C
60-B
61-B
62-C
63-C
64-C
65-A
66-B
67-B
68-B
69-B
70-C
71-B
72-C
73-C
74-B
75-A
76-A
77-B
78-A
79-B
80-B
81-B
82-B
83-C
84-C
85-B
86-B
87-C
88-B
89-A
90-D
91-B
92-A
93-A
94-B
95-D
96-B
97-B
98-B
99-B
100-A
🧠 Rationales / Explanations for All 100 Questions
A1 – Diagnosis & Treatment Planning (1–35)
1. B – Symptomatic irreversible pulpitis
Deep caries + lingering pain to cold = classic for irreversible pulpitis (vital but inflamed pulp that won’t recover).
2. A – Dentigerous cyst
Radiolucency attached to CEJ of unerupted tooth is most characteristic of a dentigerous cyst.
3. B – Scaling and root planing
Initial therapy for advanced perio is always nonsurgical SRP (plus OH instruction), not surgery right away.
4. A – NUG
Punched-out papillae, pseudomembrane, pain = necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis.
5. A – Erythroplakia
Red, velvety patch is more likely dysplastic or malignant than leukoplakia → highest premalignant risk.
6. A – Ameloblastoma
Multilocular “soap-bubble” radiolucency in posterior mandible is classic ameloblastoma.
7. C – Extrusive luxation
Displacement of tooth out of socket with mobility after trauma = extrusive luxation.
8. B – Condensing osteitis
Radiopaque lesion at apex of a vital tooth with history of irritation/inflammation is usually sclerosing/condensing osteitis.
9. A – Fibrous dysplasia
“Ground glass” radiographic appearance in jaw is typical of fibrous dysplasia.
10. C – Symptomatic apical periodontitis
Non-responsive to cold (necrotic or nearly) + pain on biting = apical periodontitis.
11. C – Gingival recession
Exposed root surface from recession is the main risk factor for root caries.
12. C – Extraction
Primary molar with draining sinus tract is usually non-restorable → extraction best for primary teeth.
13. A – Paget disease
“Cotton wool” radiopacities in skull/jaws are characteristic of Paget disease of bone.
14. A – Traumatic bone cyst
Radiolucency scalloping between roots, usually in young patients, is classic traumatic bone cyst.
15. A – Candidiasis
White lesion that wipes off = pseudomembranous candidiasis.
16. B – Bite stick / bite test
Pain on biting/release detected with tooth slooth or similar – most sensitive for cracked tooth.
17. A – Odontoma
Radiopaque mass with tooth-like structures (compound or complex) = odontoma.
18. B – Early orthodontic correction
Anterior crossbite with risk to incisors is best corrected early with ortho rather than “wait and see.”
19. A – Mandibular tori
Bilateral bony protuberances on lingual mandible = mandibular tori.
20. A – Sialadenosis
Painless, bilateral parotid enlargement, often in systemic conditions (e.g., endocrine, nutritional).
21. C – Hypermineralized dentin (sclerotic dentin)
Radiopaque band under amalgam often represents sclerotic dentin, not recurrent decay.
22. B – Fluoride
Non-cavitated early enamel lesions are best managed with topical fluoride to remineralize.
23. A – Pit and fissure
Most caries initiate in pits and fissures of posterior teeth.
24. A – Early symptomatic apical periodontitis
Widened PDL alone often indicates early apical inflammation.
25. B – Surgical exposure + orthodontic traction
Standard treatment for impacted canines if favorable position.
26. A – Pulpectomy (RCT)
Irreversible pulpitis in permanent tooth with normal periapex → full endodontic therapy.
27. A – Scleroderma
Generalized PDL widening radiographically is associated with scleroderma.
28. B – Flap surgery
Class II furcation often requires surgical access after SRP if persistent.
29. A – Band and loop
Single missing primary molar in mixed dentition → band and loop space maintainer.
30. A – Mucoepidermoid carcinoma
Most common malignant salivary gland tumor overall.
31. A – Cracked tooth
Pain on release of biting is classic for cracked tooth syndrome.
32. B – Bone marrow
Actively dividing marrow cells are among the most radiosensitive tissues.
33. A – Drainage + debridement
Perio abscess primary tx is drainage and debridement; antibiotics adjunctive.
34. A – Every 3 months
High-risk caries patients benefit from fluoride varnish at 3-month intervals.
35. A – Nasopalatine duct cyst
Radiolucency in incisive canal region between max centrals = nasopalatine duct cyst.
A2 – Oral Health Management (36–75)
36. C – Bupivacaine
Longest duration local anesthetic commonly used in dentistry.
37. D – 7 mg/kg
Generally accepted max dose of lidocaine with epi in healthy adults (up to 500 mg).
38. B – Ulcers (GI disease)
NSAIDs contraindicated/used cautiously in patients with peptic ulcers due to GI bleeding risk.
39. B – Metronidazole + amoxicillin
Common combination for aggressive perio due to anaerobic coverage.
40. A – Extraction
Bisphosphonates increase risk of MRONJ; extractions are the main trigger to avoid if possible.
41. A – Clindamycin
Known to carry high risk of C. difficile colitis.
42. A – Ibuprofen
NSAIDs can worsen asthma in some patients; acetaminophen is safer first choice.
43. A – Phenytoin
Classic cause of gingival hyperplasia (also CCBs and cyclosporine).
44. A – MI
Elective dental tx is generally deferred within 6 months of myocardial infarction.
45. C – Acetaminophen
Preferred analgesic during pregnancy; NSAIDs/aspirin have trimester-related risks.
46. B – Sucrose
Most cariogenic sugar, used by bacteria to produce extracellular polysaccharides.
47. C – Stainless steel crown
Best long-term restoration for high-risk primary molars.
48. A – Chronic periodontitis
Chlorhexidine is used as an antimicrobial rinse, especially in perio therapy.
49. C – RMGI
RMGI bonds, releases fluoride, and is flexible in cervical/abfraction/root surface lesions.
50. B – Amalgam
Durable, strong, good for deep, high-load posterior restorations.
51. B – Infection
Swelling, fever, trismus = post-op infection, not a dry socket (which is pain without swelling).
52. B – Bone quality
Primary stability and osseointegration depend most on bone quantity/quality, not brand.
53. B – Prosthetic heart valve
Infective endocarditis risk → antibiotic prophylaxis recommended.
54. B – Epinephrine IM
First-line emergency treatment for anaphylaxis is IM epinephrine.
55. B – Dislodged clot
Alveolar osteitis = loss of clot with exposed bone.
56. B – Check INR
Management of warfarin patient requires knowing INR to evaluate bleeding risk.
57. A – Rinse and reimplant
Immediate reimplantation is best for avulsed permanent tooth; time is critical.
58. A – 1.1% NaF toothpaste
High-concentration prescription NaF paste is ideal for high-risk adults.
59. C – Remove caries + restore
Reversible pulpitis resolves when cause (caries) is removed and tooth restored.
60. B – Mepivacaine plain
For hypertensive or cardiac risk patients, plain anesthetic (no epi) is safest.
61. B – Saliva substitutes
Xerostomia management includes saliva substitutes and stimulants, not antibiotics.
62. C – Emergency hospital care
Facial swelling with airway deviation and systemic signs → possible life-threatening infection.
63. C – Resin cement
Zirconia crowns are often cemented with resin cements for strong bond.
64. C – Amalgam
Amalgam is very radiopaque vs composite/GI/RMGI.
65. A – Pemphigus vulgaris
Nikolsky positive blistering disease; intraepithelial separation.
66. B – Clindamycin
Alternative to penicillin in allergic patients for odontogenic infections.
67. B – Irrigation + debridement
Pericoronitis around partially erupted mandibular third molar is first treated locally.
68. B – Incision and drainage
Primary emergency management of acute abscess with swelling is drainage.
69. B – Interproximal caries
Bitewings best for interproximal caries detection.
70. C – Poorly controlled
HbA1c of 12% is severely uncontrolled diabetes.
71. B – Crown
Fractured cusp requiring cuspal coverage needs full or partial crown.
72. C – 3 months
Perio maintenance typically 3-month interval for moderate/severe cases.
73. C – Allow to reerupt
Intruded primary tooth often re-erupts; avoid aggressive intervention unless complications.
74. B – Surgical overheating
Early implant failure commonly from poor surgical technique/overheating bone.
75. A – Peri-implantitis
Late implant failure is usually due to peri-implantitis (chronic inflammation/bone loss).
A3 – Data Interpretation & Integration (76–80)
76. A – Sinusitis
Thickened sinus membrane near tooth roots suggests sinus inflammation, not normal.
77. B – Delay + urgent referral
Extremely high BP (hypertensive crisis) → postpone elective care, refer immediately.
78. A – Bleeding
Aspirin (antiplatelet) increases bleeding tendency; others mainly address BP.
79. B – Irregular root outline
External root resorption shows irregular root surface and contour changes.
80. B – Perio progression
Uncontrolled diabetes and systemic inflammation (CRP) worsen periodontal disease risk.
B1 – Ethics & Professionalism (81–90)
81. B – Educate + respect decision
Respect autonomy but provide education; coercion is unethical.
82. B – Decline and explain
You are not obligated to perform non-indicated or harmful tx, even if requested.
83. C – Report to authorities
Suspected abuse is mandatory to report; you do not need “proof.”
84. C – Illegal and unethical
Altering charts after the fact is both unethical and legally problematic.
85. B – Disclose to patient
Honesty about errors and proper management is ethical and professional.
86. B – Risks, benefits, alternatives
Full informed consent includes these + option of no treatment.
87. C – Parent/legal guardian
Minors cannot consent except in specific situations; guardian must give consent.
88. B – Decline + offer alternatives
Opioid-seeking behavior → avoid opioids, provide safer alternatives.
89. A – Treat normally
HIV status cannot be a reason to refuse care; universal precautions apply.
90. D – HIPAA
Confidentiality violations are specifically regulated under HIPAA.
B2 – Legal & Public Health (91–100)
91. B – When suspected
Report child abuse when you reasonably suspect; you’re not an investigator.
92. A – Weekly spore testing
Biologic monitoring (spore tests) recommended at least weekly.
93. A – Wash + report + evaluation
Immediate washing, reporting, and medical evaluation (possible PEP).
94. B – State findings objectively
Professionalism requires neutral, factual comments only.
95. D – Negligence
Failure to diagnose or treat appropriately is negligence/malpractice.
96. B – Rectangular collimation
Rectangular collimation significantly reduces patient radiation dose.
97. B – Within required timeframe
Patients have right to access records; dentist must comply within legal time limits.
98. B – Dentist owns record; patient owns info
In most jurisdictions the physical record is owned by provider; information belongs to patient.
99. B – Dismiss after explaining
If necessary diagnostics refused, you can’t provide proper care; explain and ethically dismiss.
100. A – When treatment plan changes
New or significantly changed procedures require renewed informed consent.